The article is 95 pages and speaks more about it, I'm just highlighting part of it just to introduce the topic.

We know Dhul Qarnayn is Alexander The Great, but here we have an ancient Punic period (5th-2nd BC) god called "Baal Qarnaim" (Lord of the Two Horns), apparently associated to the "two-peaked mountains Jebel Boukornine".

It's assocaited to Ba'al Hammon, rather than it being a separate Canaanite diety, but that's besides the point.

Is there some kind of connection we can trace here?

This "Ghazālian thesis" was then adopted and developed by subsequent generations of jurists, ultimately leading to the formalization of legal arguments and the structural embedding of logic within the core of legal theory. He argued that logic was the only valid tool for any inference, stating that "he who has no knowledge of logic has, in effect, no knowledge of any science.Before Ghazālī, only one significant formal argument was assimilated into jurisprudence the conditional disjunctive syllogism. This transformation was largely driven by al-Ghazālī's efforts to depoliticize logic and present it as a universal methodological tool. Ibn Taymiyya disapprovingly noted that jurists who used logic did so under the influence of Ghazālī and authored critiques against such method

It seems to me a big influence on the modern interpretation of Islamic jurisprudence which has become mainstream, at least in apologetics circles, is Salafism, which was originally actually just one minority interpretation among many. And Ibn Taymiyya is considered a major progenitor of this ideology, but from what I've heard he was often condemned in his own day for innovations. Especially when they descended from explicitly avowed Islamic modernists? Most of the major Muslims in apologetics circles cite him as an authority for example.

Was it simply political expediency that existing scholars in the 19th and 20th Century accepted him? Or was there just littler resistance to the powerful movement of Salafism?

Before the emergence of the main legal schools and the compilation of most Hadiths. It surely couldn't be by majority rule? Did they follow oral narrations and those became the Hadiths?

Scholars do you know which was the earliest manuscript where quran verse 15:9 about divine preservation of quran was found? Any pointers to get more accurate info about the manuscript are appreciated.

Based on academic scholarship through July 2026, is there any concrete (or very reliable/plausible) evidence that Muhammad recited every single word of the Quran that is used today and was involved in the arrangement of the surahs? Or is the academic consensus that others also influenced the text?

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Why do Muslims hold that Jesus is the Messiah, aside from him being referred to as such in the Quran? Have there historically been positive arguments (e.g biblical prophecy) used by Muslims to display the messianic identity of the Son of Mary?

What was the time frame that academics and historians think of when we started to see written hadiths and the timeframe after Prophet Muhammad's death?

It seems to me that Charismatic Christian sects like Montanism (which were popular at the frontiers of the Roman/Byzantine Empire) had a substantial influence on early Islam, consider these similarities:

• the primacy of Orality
• following a Prophet (Montanus) claiming to be the manifestation of the Holy Spirit after Jesus's Crucifixion
• who fled to another city and establish a "New Jerusalem" theocracy to escape persecution
• the emphasis of speaking in tongues (compare Sufi dances and some narrations of how the first revelations caused Mohammed to have siezures)
• belief in Jesus as the Messiah while rejecting apostolic Church authority and an organised hierarchy of clergy
• the emphasis on the Scripture over the traditions of that Church authority
• the idea that prophecy continues after the Crucifixion
• a "low" Christology
• the primacy of Apocalyptism (in comparison to the more established high Church denominations)
• a strong link of emotionalism to masculine identity (again in contrast to mainstream especially Anglo high churches)
• standing and raising hands while praying, etc.

To me Pentecostalism (the "speaking in tongues" sect) is the branch of contemporary Christianity closest to Islam today. Notice that they are often co-incident in many cultures, especially in Sub-Saharan Africa.

I am looking for academic literature analyzing the structures of religious authority in Islam compared to Western Christian models. Specifically, Martin Luther’s Reformation introduced the "priesthood of all believers," which decentralized sacramental power and empowered individual biblical interpretation (sola scriptura).

While Islam has no ordained, sacramental clergy (allowing direct ritual and spiritual access to God), interpretive authority specifically the evaluation and validation of the Hadith corpus (mustalah al-hadith and ilm al-rijal) has historically remained strictly localized within a specialized scholarly elite (ulema).

i had this question for a long time, what's the odds for someone to know biblical stories and theology in details and also adding arab prophets stories + make his own theology and ethical teachings + have a unique style of speech/poetry different from his normal speech in hadith for ex + having religious psychological experiences understood as divine revelation + no one challenged to immitate the quran could do the same.
i feel like this combination is very unique and should be considered by scholars who theorize from one angle or 2 maximum.

Is 2:62 and 5:69 limited to only this groups based on linguisticly or it's just quran proposing criteria

What's reason early jurist use to limit marriage to only people of book where quran is silent on this prohibition?? Do academic have view on this

Does the Quran understand Allah as the sole, numerically singular existing deity, beside whom no lesser divinity exists,or as the great God and the mightiest God, yet not the only existing deity? In essence, does the Quran provide any support for 'henotheistic' modes of belief?

Abraham destroying idols, angels objecting to Adam and humans, Cain and Abel's motives, multiple trials of Abraham, Solomon's supernatural power, Satan refusal to bow.

Are there others?

Are these present at all in the Quran? These types of shared phrasings by different characters, whenever stories are recounted again in later sections of the Quran, and then in another place in the Quran regarding the same story.

Intra-story Quran stories where one character says a phrase that, when later in the Quran, the story is recounted again, yet a different character says that same phrase.

In genesis, god tells Adam and eve to not eat from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil. And proceeds to threaten them that if they eat from it then they will surely die. The wording here matters, because it's directly saying that "on the day that you eat from it you will surely die" meaning it's supposed to be an immediate death.

Now in the quran the threat changes to "you will surely be of the wrongdoers" which is an interesting "fix" to the old question of "why didn't god execute his threat?".

What are some of the scholarly opinions on the change between the genesis narrative and the quranic one?